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Screensize: 640 x 480 800 x 600 1024 x 768 1280 x 1024 UserName: Password: Anti-Spam Code: Format Mode: Basic  Help  Prompt  Format: Font Andale Mono Arial Arial Black Book Antiqua Century Gothic Comic Sans MS Courier New Georgia Impact Lucida Console Script MT Bold Stencil Tahoma Times New Roman Trebuchet MS Verdana   Size 1 2 3 4 5 6   Color Black Red Yellow Pink Green Orange Purple Blue Beige Brown Teal Navy Maroon LimeGreen Message: * HTML is OFF * Forum Code is ON Smilies [quote][i]Originally posted by Niko4[/i] [br]When testing the null hypothesis beta_1 = 0 in linear regression, one estimates the variance of the response variable (around the subpopulation means) by first fitting a line with least-squares, then looking at the variance around that line. This, it seems to me, runs counter to the idea that we should base all calculations on the assumption that beta_1 = 0 (the hypothesis we wish to refute with some level of confidence). Clearly the estimated variance would be larger then. How does this make sense? A very basic question that I have not found an answer to anywhere online. [/quote]   Check here to include your profile signature. Check here to subscribe to this topic.